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Old 09-02-2005, 04:19 AM
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Is this grammatically correct?

"Another day of justice has been served."

Or rather, I know that it is grammatically correct, but does it make sense to say that "a day... has been served"? (Because it doesn't matter about the 'of justice', what you are saying is a day has been served)

You could say "For another day justice has been served" or "Justice has been served for another day" but can you have the very first option?
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Old 09-02-2005, 04:24 AM
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Yes.
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Old 09-02-2005, 07:01 AM
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I don't think they are talking about a day 'being served' but the justice in the day full of justice. I agree, I don't think a day can be served, but justice can


Ummm, I hope I've made myself clear because I think I've just confused myself...again
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Old 09-02-2005, 07:30 AM
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Technically, it's probably incorrect. But idiomatically, it's fine.
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Old 09-02-2005, 11:57 AM
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it doesn't sound right to me.
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Old 09-03-2005, 09:48 AM
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"Justice has been served for another day"..is proper. The first sentence.."Another day of justice has been served"..is insinuating that the day...has been served because the subject seems to be...another day of justice as one expression. Justice is not really seen as the noun that needs modyfiying.

It's incorrect because this is an example of....I think...a misplaced modifier...I THINK. You need to clarify whether..justice has been served or...the day. So that's why :

"Justice has been served for another day"..is gramatically correct.
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Old 09-03-2005, 09:53 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SweetPea345
"Justice has been served for another day"..is proper. The first sentence.."Another day of justice has been served"..is insinuating that the day...has been served because the subject seems to be...another day of justice as one expression. Justice is not really seen as the noun that needs modyfiying.

It's incorrect because this is an example of....I think...a misplaced modifier...I THINK. You need to clarify whether..justice has been served or...the day. So that's why :

"Justice has been served for another day"..is gramatically correct.

Exactly what i want to say.I think that "Justice has been served for another day" is gramatically correct.
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Old 09-03-2005, 09:56 AM
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"Justice has been served for another day." sounds better.
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Old 09-03-2005, 10:02 AM
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It doesn't sound right, but the person (I think I know who it is, ahem) probably wanted his words to sound more dramatic and powerful.
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Old 09-03-2005, 10:13 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jijo
Exactly what i want to say.I think that "Justice has been served for another day" is gramatically correct.
my ap enlish language and composition teacher would be so proud lol.
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Old 09-03-2005, 05:16 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SweetPea345
my ap enlish language and composition teacher would be so proud lol.
Isn't it ironic that "English" is the typo in that sentence?


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Old 09-03-2005, 06:02 PM
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It may be grammatically correct, but it sure doesn't sound right!
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Old 09-04-2005, 06:59 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Wild Pikachu
Isn't it ironic that "English" is the typo in that sentence?


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Old 09-05-2005, 07:52 AM
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Thanks to everyone who responded to this; it's one of those niggly annoyances that plague me.
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