 | | 06-15-2008, 12:58 PM | |
#12 |
| Dedicated Fan
Joined: Apr 2007
Posts: 550
| Quote: | ok well if i've done my math correctly there's a 99.98% chance that they can all be used although I wouldn't quote me on that This is reallycomplicated and I think I might be doing something wrong. I can't figure it out. what Math course is this? I'll ask my step mom if she's here, She's a math major. | Well, I finally understand it after a lot of hours and some help from a friend, so this is how it's done
- 2% of 60% is (2/100)x(60/100)=120/10000=1,2%
- 0,9% of 40% is (0,9/100)x(40/100)=36/10000=0,36%
so in total the (1,2%+0,36%)=1,56% of the keys can't be used.
- What's the chance they can all be used?
The joint probability of a series of events is P=P(E1) x P(E2)...x P(En)
In this case on 5 events the probability is (100% - 1,56%) x (100% - 1,56%) x (100% - 1,56%) x (100% - 1,56%) x (100% - 1,56%) = 92,44%
- What's the chance only one of them can be used?
It's the joint probability of "one can be used" and "4 can't be used" so:
(100% - 1,56%) x 1,56% x 1,56% x 1,56% x 1,56% => (5,83 e-8 )^5
- What's the chance one or more can be used?
It's 100% -the chanche that all of them can't be used so:
100%- [(1,56%)x(1,56%)x(1,56%)x(1,56%)x(1,56%)]=100% - 9,239e-10= almost 1...
Thank you anyway  __________________ Vote Foxy♥ And if all the world was perfect
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